1 Timothy 2 (NKJV)
15 Nevertheless she will be saved in childbearing if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control.
Women who walk in obedience to God and carry children may be considered saved, but I think this verse also applies to women who aren't saved (in Christ) or who don't bear children. While giving birth, many devout women did not accept Jesus as their Lord and Savior.
What about the "salvation-filled" mother who abandoned her faith in Christ while giving birth?
My argument is that I have no right to criticize a woman, saved or not, whether she bears birth or not. That belongs to God.
After six months, my wife suffered a tragic miscarriage in 1985. This did not, in my opinion, cost her salvation. Has she committed sin since? Indeed, as do we all.
After that, we never had children but hers.
What does it imply when the Bible states that women are rescued from childbearing? Does this imply that every mother is saved?
Are those ladies who are childless also going to be saved?
Not all women are able to become pregnant or give birth. It's not that simple, and not all women succeed in finding a mate.
1 Timothy 2:14 and 15.
If you pay attention, it mentions Eve participating in the sin. We must comprehend what the offenses were.
When it was first intended, procreation was to be through spoken word conceptions (as it was with Jesus), but after the fall, it was corrupted (Serpent Seed). The phrase "Notwithstanding, she shall be saved in childbearing" (or "Notwithstanding the nature of the fall, she shall be saved if") appears in verse 15.
15 Nevertheless she will be saved in childbearing if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control.
Women who walk in obedience to God and carry children may be considered saved, but I think this verse also applies to women who aren't saved (in Christ) or who don't bear children. While giving birth, many devout women did not accept Jesus as their Lord and Savior.
What about the "salvation-filled" mother who abandoned her faith in Christ while giving birth?
My argument is that I have no right to criticize a woman, saved or not, whether she bears birth or not. That belongs to God.
After six months, my wife suffered a tragic miscarriage in 1985. This did not, in my opinion, cost her salvation. Has she committed sin since? Indeed, as do we all.
After that, we never had children but hers.
What does it imply when the Bible states that women are rescued from childbearing? Does this imply that every mother is saved?
Are those ladies who are childless also going to be saved?
Not all women are able to become pregnant or give birth. It's not that simple, and not all women succeed in finding a mate.
1 Timothy 2:14 and 15.
If you pay attention, it mentions Eve participating in the sin. We must comprehend what the offenses were.
When it was first intended, procreation was to be through spoken word conceptions (as it was with Jesus), but after the fall, it was corrupted (Serpent Seed). The phrase "Notwithstanding, she shall be saved in childbearing" (or "Notwithstanding the nature of the fall, she shall be saved if") appears in verse 15.